Two follow on questions for this to maybe guide the continuation (and I appreciate both book recs):
a) How does one address the difference between "this is a sin but the OT penalty doesn't apply anymore" and "this is no longer a sin one has to worry about". Perhaps the "cast the first stone" example is good here in re: the adulterous woman and Jesus saying "don't punish her; just don't do it again woman". On the converse side, why is it no longer bad to be around a menstruating woman? I'm sure Jesus didn't address that issue. Or the crop issues.
b) While I can perhaps understand ignoring 1 Timothy 2:12 based on saying that Jesus treated women equally, you acknowledge that this is almost entirely interpretive and that in many areas it would also be derivative as Jesus does not address something directly. What then is the difference between letting society determine mores and values and letting society determine how they think Jesus would address mores and values?