Originally posted by NewYorkDore: OK, my question of the week is as follows:
If Jesus said that God’s Word is truth (John 17:17), why do most Christians view much of Leviticus as no longer valid.
your question turned into lots of questions.
I believe that all deserve an answer.
Would you really like an answer? Or in other words will it matter to you if there is a good, scriptural answer that is both reasonable and logical?
That is where I am. The scriptures must make sense as they come from the one who made "sense" possible.
Why do mist Christians view Leviticus as invalid?
Well, I believe that to be an excellent question, and as there are several things at work here so.....
Is there a difference in the things written being "invalid" as if they are false or invalid as in no longer required? It does a person well to understand the purpose of the "law" given only to the Jews. It had a purpose and that purpose was served....but that the law was for the Jews....this scripture helps us to be sure of that.
Pslam147:19?He is telling his word to Jacob, His regulations and his judicial decisions to Israel. 20?He has not done that way to any other nation; And as for [his] judicial decisions, they have not known them.
Now why the law code, the why is vital in understanding your question as it relates to its being "valid", the Law was “holy,” “good,” “fine” (Ro 7:12,?16), and anyone who could fully live up to this perfect Law would prove himself a perfect man, worthy of life. (Le 18:5; Ro 10:5; Ga 3:12) For this very reason the Law brought condemnation, rather than life, not because the Law was not good but because of the imperfect, sinful nature of those under it. (Ro 7:13-16; Ga 3:10-12, 19-22) The perfect Law made their imperfection and sinfulness especially evident. (Ro 3:19,?20; Ga 3:19,?22) The Law in this respect also served to identify Jesus as the Messiah, for he alone was able to keep the Law in every respect, proving himself a perfect man.?Joh 8:46; 2Co 5:21; Heb 7:26. That is why the religious leaders of his day tried to discredit him, but they failed to really find any fault in him.
Like Paul said at Galatians 3:19, 19?Why, then, the Law? It was added to make transgressions manifest, until the seed should arrive....under the law there was no hope as year after year they failed to do the law and sacrificed to the end of their life.
The Law was called a curse as it exposed their sinful nature: Galatians 3:10?For all those who depend upon works of law are under a curse; for it is written: “Cursed is every one that does not continue in all the things written in the scroll of the Law in order to do them.” 11?Moreover, that by law no one is declared righteous with God is evident, because “the righteous one will live by reason of faith.” 12?Now the Law does not adhere to faith, but “he that does them shall live by means of them.” 13?Christ by purchase released us from the curse of the Law by becoming a curse instead of us, because it is written: “Accursed is every man hanged upon a stake.”
Also the law was called a tutor or teacher. It should have taught the Jews that they needed something to get out from under the law covenant becasue in their sinful condition could not do the law and prove themselves righteous. By the time Jesus the messiah arrived the leaders were so far off the path they thought that they were righteous and totally missed the point and had their brother and savior executed and that is what provided the sacrifice that was needed, the perfect man Jesus ( never broke the law) and was necessary to replace the man that orphaned all his descendants, Adam who forfeit his perfect life.
1 Corinthians 15:20?However, now Christ has been raised up from the dead, the first-fruits of those who have fallen asleep [in death]. 21?For since death is through a man, resurrection of the dead is also through a man. 22?For just as in Adam all are dying, so also in the Christ all will be made alive
1 Corinthians 15:45?It is even so written: “The first man Adam became a living soul.” The last Adam became a life-giving spirit. 46?Nevertheless, the first is, not that which is spiritual, but that which is physical, afterward that which is spiritual. 47?The first man is out of the earth and made of dust; the second man is out of heaven.
So the Law in reality was "perfect" and exposed every man but one. So when Jesus died sinless the law died with him.
Colossians2:13?Furthermore, though YOU were dead in YOUR trespasses and in the uncircumcised state of YOUR flesh, [God] made YOU alive together with him. He kindly forgave us all our trespasses 14?and blotted out the handwritten document against us, which consisted of decrees and which was in opposition to us; and He has taken it out of the way by nailing it to the torture stake.
So, unless we (you and I) are Jewish, we would have never been under the law in the first place. But it is invalid and that is not so unusual as there are many laws of men that have come and gone that were enforced at one time. Because those laws were not good they just do not apply today and they cant, part of the law dealt with hygene...pooping in the ground away from living quarters. And sacrifices that had to be doem that the temple that God allowed to be destroyed.... there is no way possible to keep the law now with no temple and no one can claim to be the messiah as all those records were destroyed by Cestius Gallus and the Roman Army in the 1st century just as Jesus said they would.
Now that does not make the law worthless or untrue as many so called Christians claim as the law provides much we can learn about how God views things and the purpose in some of the requirements. If a Christian were to claim that the book of Leviticus is "invalid" they might just need to read 2 tim 3:16?All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, 17?that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work. It says "all" and that includes Leviticus.
As for keeping the Sabath, dietary restrictions, and other things in the "law covenant". There is no one under the "law of Moses" and that includes the 10 commands as anyone that claims to keep any part of the "law" is in effect saying that they want to prove their righteousness to God and in effect are saying that Jesus sacrifice was in vein. Does that mean it is okay to murder? Never. Was not okay before the law and is not now, can a man be forgiven of such a bad thing....yes he can, but that does not mean he will not have to face the consequences.
Not so complicated as it is made out to be....
and the question about Deut 22:28,29. 28? “In case a man finds a girl, a virgin who has not been engaged, and he actually seizes her and lies down with her, and they have been found out, 29?the man who lay down with her must also give the girl’s father fifty silver shekels, and she will become his wife due to the fact that he humiliated her. He will not be allowed to divorce her all his days.
they.........they......both of them as in consensual....he had to step up and do the right thing and they was the "bride" price it was paid to the father of the girl not the "husband" "girl’s father fifty silver shekels"
No as for rape?
Deut 22:25?“If, however, it is in the field that the man found the girl who was engaged, and the man grabbed hold of her and lay down with her, the man who lay down with her must also die by himself, 26?and to the girl you must do nothing. The girl has no sin deserving of death, because just as when a man rises up against his fellowman and indeed murders him, even a soul, so it is with this case. 27?For it was in the field that he found her. The girl who was engaged screamed, but there was no one to rescue her.
a) taken literally while others are read metaphorically or as allegories; and b) commandments that are deemed to no longer apply while others beside them are felt to be sacrosanct.
with that I would need specifics.
I know I do not speak for "Christians" so anyone else that bothers to read and feels like you have a scripture that shows where this line of thinking and connecting is inaccurate I encourage discussion becasue if I am wrong I want to know it. What I do not want is the stuff the religious leaders of Jesus day in quoting other men...dead men at that....that is why Jesus said "you heard it was said"....
their oral law was bogus and there is alot of that today too.
I appreciate the questions and hope that at least you can see that with me anyway it is not a pick and choose but it is the bible itself that explains itself....let me know if any of what I say needs further explanation.